Recently retired and received my final paycheck. All up to date and looks good, however, I have a question and concern about the payment that was held in arrears about two years ago. Many of you may be aware of the payroll change that occurred about 2-3 years ago, where we did not get paid for 1 pay period. At that time I was under the understanding that those weeks would be paid when you were retired or terminated. I feel that I’m missing this money that was taken from me and HR and Payroll seems to say there is no issue. I went thoroughly thru my past records and know I’m in the right. Is GE getting over on us? I know many states this process was illegal, however, in my state it was permitted. Any feedback I would appreciate it.
2 replies (most recent on top)
Not really since that year my W2 was 2 weeks short in pay
For salaried or hourly? For salaried, it was just to save some cash for 2-jet for 2016 financials so instead of paying you on FW53 of 2016 the General paid you on FW1 of 2017 (for the work you did on FW52 and FW53). There is a gap in pay schedule but there’s no missing money.
I am not sure what and how they did that for hourly.